Quran Query

[fatman]

Salam,

"Except with those joined to them in the marriage bond, Or (the captives) whom their right hand possess - for (in their case) they are free from blame."
- Surah Al-Mu'mineen vs 6.


"Or (the captives) whom their right hand possess" - this has always confused me, and i've never managed to get an answer to it.

Is it stating that a man can have intercourse outside of wedlock? And with a "slave"? How are slaves defined today?

Like I said seeing as i've never managed to get an answer I may be understanding this all wrong, so any insight you have would be greatly appreciated.

Wasalam

[Br. Student of knowledge]

Assalamu Alaykum,

Slavery does not exist today. It existed centuries ago but in this day and age, there is no equivalent form of slavery. The slavery that existed previously was not based on race or religion - it was based on debt and being a captive of war etc. It wasnt racially motivated like the slave trade in the US, the UK and the white "Australian's" treatment of the Aborigines.

In saying that - when a person became a slave (and keep in mind that almost anyone could become a slave, it wasnt exclusive to black or brown skin tones etc), then they officially "belonged" to their master and one of the rights the master had over the slave was the fulfillment of sexual needs with them.

It was permissible for them to have intercourse with their slave - even though they may have been married.

As i said though - there is no equivalent in todays times. Alhamdulilah, we do not have slavery and insha'Allah we never do.

Hope this helps.

Wassalams,
Omar